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11 If therefore perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?

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11 So if the priesthood of Levi, on which the law was based, could have achieved the perfection God intended, why did God need to establish a different priesthood, with a priest in the order of Melchizedek instead of the order of Levi and Aaron?[a]

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Footnotes

  1. 7:11 Greek the order of Aaron?

Jesus Like Melchizedek

11 If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood—and indeed the law given to the people(A) established that priesthood—why was there still need for another priest to come,(B) one in the order of Melchizedek,(C) not in the order of Aaron?

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